Fist things first - I don't post here to argue with people. I post here to potentially help others with issues they may have with regards to piano, as it's an area i'm versed in. I won't be drawn into an argument. Plus I don't have time for one.
You don't need to impress by demonstrating your prowess in this area. I don't doubt it. Nor was the Wittgenstein comment a quasi-test of your knowledge of such matters.
If you do know Wittgenstein you'll understand what I meant by the comment.
A comment like that could be seen as rude.
Are hooks the only structural feature in music that can release 'pleasure molecules'?
You used the word 'probably'. It isn't very scientifically precise.
When you say 'general population', do you have any statistical specifics?
Thereis a big problem with the whole mode of thinking shown in the past few threads - 'nice' doesn't mean 'good'.
'Not nice' also isn't necessarily a negative value.
I play some music that sounds 'terrible'. But that doesn't mean it is 'terrible' music (all these words don't carry any fixed meaning i.e. 'nice', 'terrible' etc as they are subjective. Never mind any biological findings. Hence I asked what you specifically meant by them).
We may have moved on since Kant, but that fact alone doesn't devalue the totality of his views on art and aesthetics.
Also, the 'pleasure molecule' principle has a problem. 'Pleasing' and 'nice' aren't synonymous.
'Will lead to' is very specific, and means you are saying the following will be fact. But how can it be fact if the study hasn't taken place yet? Isn't there the possibility for there to be some potentially contradictory findings, and if not, what's the point of the study in the first place?
If there is such a possibility, then how can you surmise about something that hasn't taken place yet, irrspective of what current data may suggest?
The rest of your post regards the specifics of a supposition, so i've chose to ignore it.